I don’t see the fairness or logic

October 16, 2014

I have been separated since 2008 and have now divorced my ex-wife since 2010.

We have one child and have verbally agreed that we share joint custody (one week with my ex-wife and one week with me)and my ex-wife has control of the child allowance payments which make her I suppose the parent with custody.

I have also verbally agreed to pay what I have been told is the estimated amount should be have gone through the CSA (which we haven’t) and that works out at £220 per month and am wondering is this fair on me and is it an overpayment.

I earn roughly £42,000 before deductions per year.

My ex-wife lives in the former family home with her new partner whose estimate income is in excess of £60,000.
My wife also works and earns around £40,000 per year.

Is she eligible to pay tax on the “Child Allowance”

I simply do not see the fairness or logic in paying the amount I do when my ex-wife and myself earn roughly the same and she can subsidise this with the income coming from her new partner as well (I earn around the £42,000 mark and my ex-wife receives two salaries totalling near a £100,000) how on earth is this fair.


  • Bill says:

    On the new system, if you have equal shared care, maintenance would not be deemed due by the CMS( the new CSA).

    But on the old system (CSA2) at 15% for one child less 3/7 for shared care, assuming deduction of about £12000 from your gross income for tax and N.I., maintenance payable would be about £214 per month. Not far from the figure you are paying. On this system because your ex is in receipt of child benefit she is considered to be the main carer. Child benefit is a benefit therefore not taxable.
    Earnings of anybody other than the biological parents are no longer considered in child maintenance calculations.

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